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passguide s90-01a

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SOA Certified Professional S90-01A
Fundamental SOA & Service-Oriented Computing

Q&A V3.20

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Question: 1
Which of the following statements does not make sense?

A. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it helps increase the quantity of integration projects that may be required to accommodate new business requirements, thereby fostering agility.
B. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it enables services to exchange data without having to resort to transformation technologies.
C. Intrinsic interoperability is important because it is fundamental to enabling services to be repeatedly composed.
D. Intrinsic interoperability is important because one of the goals of service-oriented computing is to increase intrinsic interoperability.

Answer: A

Question: 2
Which of the following statements is true?

A. To apply service-orientation requires the use of Web services.
B. Web services are required in order to build service-oriented solutions.
C. When discussing SOA and service-oriented computing, the term “Web service” must always be synonymous with (have the same meaning as) the term “service”.
D. None of these statements are true.

Answer: D

Question: 3
Which of the following statements is true?

A. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because it makes you think about service contract design options at the same time that you are building the underlying service logic.
B. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because it forces you to establish standardized service contracts prior to the development of the underlying service logic.
C. “Contract first” design is important to SOA because without a contract, services cannot be invoked. However, there is no preference as to when, during the service delivery lifecycle, the contract should be designed or established.
D. “Contract first” design is an unproven design technique that is not commonly employed when delivering service-oriented solutions and is therefore not considered important to SOA.

Answer: B

Question: 4
Which of the following statements is false?

A. A service is a unit of logic to which service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent.
B. Services are designed to increase the need for integration.
C. Services are the fundamental building blocks of service-oriented solutions.
D. A service composition is comprised of services.

Answer: B

Question: 5
Which of the following statements accurately describes the strategic benefit of Increased Federation?

A. A target state whereby all services are always consistently delivered as Web services.
B. A target state in which the entire enterprise has been successfully service-oriented.
C. A target state whereby the enterprise has adopted SOA by replacing all legacy environments with custom-developed services.
D. A target state whereby standardized service contracts have been established to express a consistent and unified service endpoint layer.

Answer: D

Question: 6
In order to achieve __________ we have traditionally required __________ projects. With service-orientation, we aim to establish an intrinsic level of __________ within each service so as to reduce the need for __________ effort.

A. vendor diversity, integration, vendor diversity, design
B. agility, development, scalability, development
C. interoperability, integration, interoperability, integration
D. autonomy, integration, statelessness, integration

Answer: C

Question: 7
Below are four statements about business and technology alignment, as it pertains to service-oriented computing. Which of these statements is false?

A. Business and technology alignment represents the extent to which an IT enterprise and its automated systems can mirror and evolve in alignment with the business.
B. Service-oriented computing promotes the abstraction and accurate encapsulation and expression of business logic in services. This supports business and technology alignment.
C. The pursuit of business and technology alignment can be supported by the collaboration of business analysts and technology experts during analysis and modeling phases.
D. In order for an IT enterprise to increase business and technology alignment, its business analysts must become more technical and assume the responsibilities of technology experts so that they can independently design quality business services that take both business and technology considerations into account.

Answer: D

Question: 8
Which of the following is not a benefit of maintaining a vendor-neutral and business-driven context for a service-oriented architecture?

A. Establish a technology architecture with a fixed scope and purpose that remains unchanged, regardless of how the business may need to change over time.
B. Avoid establishing a technology architecture that will need to be replaced in the near future when it no longer adequately fulfills business requirements.
C. Leverage new technological innovation in order to maximize the fulfillment of business requirements.
D. Establish a technology architecture that can stay in alignment with how the business may need to change over time.

Answer: A

Question: 9
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The design standardization of service contracts helps increase interoperability between services.
B. Design standardization can introduce organizational and cultural challenges because it requires that the design standards be regularly enforced.
C. The design standardization of service contracts helps avoid the need for transformation technologies.
D. Design standardization is not relevant to the design of service compositions. It is only relevant to the design of individual services.

Answer: D

Question: 10
Which of the following statements is false?

A. The governance burden of services is not impacted by the SOA project delivery approach.
B. The bottom-up approach to SOA project delivery results in less up-front impact, but will usually increase the eventual governance burden of services.
C. Alternative approaches exist that provide a compromise between bottom-up and top-down SOA project delivery approaches.
D. Up-front analysis as part of a top-down SOA project delivery approach helps reduce the eventual governance burden of services.

Answer: A

Question: 11
What is wrong with this statement: “We delivered two services last year. Even though each service was delivered by a separate project team in a different location and at a different time, I am confident that the services will be reasonably interoperable because each project team was asked to use the same design standards.”

A. The statement is incorrect because services should never be delivered by different project teams.
B. The statement is incorrect because services rely on post-implementation integration effort in order to achieve interoperability, not design standards.
C. The statement is incorrect because SOA delivery projects require that services be created at exactly the same time in order to guarantee interoperability.
D. There is nothing wrong with this statement.

Answer: D

Question: 12
Which of the following statements is false?

A. Industry standards are usually produced by standards organizations.
B. Industry standards are usually created by standards committees so that they do not favor any one vendor or organization.
C. The use of industry standards alone automatically results in fully standardized service-oriented solutions.
D. XML is an example of an industry standard.

Answer: C

Question: 13
You can create __________ or __________ service inventories.

A. process-specific, process-wide
B. domain, enterprise
C. domain, process-specific
D. enterprise, process-specific

Answer: B

Question: 14
__________ and __________ are used to classify and organize services within a service inventory.

A. service compositions, service-oriented solutions
B. service capabilities, service compositions
C. service models, service layers
D. service contracts, service capabilities

Answer: C

Question: 15
The standardization of services within a service inventory supports the repeated __________ of services, thereby increasing their potential reuse.

A. integration
B. composition
C. definition
D. expression

Answer: B

Question: 16
Solution logic is classified as “service-oriented” after:

A. it has been built using Web services
B. it has been built using RPC technologies
C. it has been performance tested to a meaningful extent
D. service-orientation has been applied to a meaningful extent

Answer: D

Question: 17
A __________ can be part of a/an __________ which can be assembled from __________ within a/an __________.

A. component, object, enterprises, service
B. service inventory, service, enterprises, service composition
C. service, service composition, services, service inventory
D. service inventory, service, service compositions, enterprise

Answer: C

Question: 18
Two common, yet opposing SOA delivery approaches are:

A. bottom-up and upside-down
B. top-down and left-to-right
C. upside-down and left-to-right
D. none of the above

Answer: D

Question: 19
When designing service-oriented architectures, it is important to take the strategic goal of Increased Vendor Diversity Options into account, because this goal:

A. encourages you to commit to one vendor platform and stick with that platform, which fosters long-term flexibility
B. encourages you to retain the constant option of using proprietary vendor features and extensions so that they can be entrenched into your service-oriented architectures for long-term flexibility
C. encourages you to retain the constant option to extend or replace parts of your service-oriented architectures with different vendor technologies or products, which fosters long-term flexibility
D. encourages you to bridge disparity between vendor platforms by using modern transformation technologies for long-term flexibility

Answer: C

Question: 20
Services can be referred to as __________ because of the enterprise-centric design considerations of service-orientation and SOA.

A. enterprise architectures
B. enterprise resources
C. enterprise definitions
D. enterprise-centric business models

Answer: B

Question: 21
A service inventory is considered to have normalized services when:

A. its scope does not overlap with any existing databases
B. service boundaries within the service inventory do not overlap with each other
C. each service within the service inventory is not used by more than one service composition
D. legacy systems within the service inventory boundary do not overlap with each other

Answer: B

Question: 22
Service metadata can be centrally registered within a __________ for discoverability purposes.

A. service inventory
B. service composition
C. service registry
D. service model

Answer: C

Question: 23
When planning a transition toward SOA, we are usually required to balance the __________ goals with the __________ requirements.

A. strategic (long-term), tactical (short-term)
B. strategic (long-term), unimportant (low priority)
C. tactical (short-term), unimportant (low priority)
D. unimportant (low priority), important (high priority)

Answer: A

Question: 24
Services are ideally designed to be:

A. agnostic and reusable
B. unidirectional and semi-granular
C. linear and logistically decomposable
D. returnable and non-standardized

Answer: A

Question: 25
The ROI (return on investment) potential of services is increased by:

A. increasing the amount of agnostic services within an inventory
B. increasing the amount of non-agnostic services within an inventory
C. increasing the amount of legacy systems within an enterprise
D. decreasing the scope of a service inventory

Answer: A

Question: 26
Which of the following is not the result of achieving the strategic goal of Reduced IT Burden?

A. a reduction in waste and redundancy among automation solutions (compared to a traditional silo-based IT enterprise)
B. a reduction in the quantity of services (compared to a traditional silo-based IT enterprise)
C. a reduction in the overhead associated with IT governance and evolution (compared to a traditional silo-based IT enterprise)
D. a reduction in size and operational cost of IT as a whole (compared to a traditional silo-based IT enterprise)

Answer: B

Question: 27
Which of the following statements is true?

A. Organizational agility can be viewed as the ability of IT to rapidly produce new legacy applications on-demand.
B. Organizational agility can be viewed as a state whereby the organization increases its responsiveness with the support of a more agile IT enterprise.
C. Organizational agility can be viewed as a tactical benefit that empowers the organization to respond to new business requirements by building new applications from scratch each time.
D. Organizational agility can be viewed as the ability of IT project managers to rapidly replace slow performing programmers without jeopardizing project delivery schedules.

Answer: B

Question: 28
To qualify as a service composition, at least __________ participating services need to be present. Otherwise, the service interaction only represents a point-to-point exchange.

A. two
B. four
C. six
D. eight

Answer: A

Question: 29
There are two basic types of service-oriented solution logic: __________ and __________.

A. services, service registries
B. services, service compositions
C. service candidates, service registries
D. top-down service models, bottom-up service models

Answer: B

Question: 30
Which of the following statements is false?

A. Service-orientation is a design paradigm that must be applied on an enterprise-wide basis in order to be successful.
B. Service-orientation is a design paradigm comprised of a set of design principles.
C. Service-orientation is an evolutionary design paradigm that has been influenced by older, established IT paradigms and platforms.
D. Service-orientation is applied to logic in order to create service-oriented logic.

Answer: A

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Free Download PassGuide Crack Software — Sun, 29 May 2011 19:41:25 +0000

HP HP0-S32

HP BladeSystem Networking 2011

Q&A V3.20

Study Tips

This product will provide you questions and answers carefully compiled and written by our experts. Try to understand the concepts behind the questions instead of cramming the questions.

Go through the entire document at least twice so that you make sure that you are not missing anything.

Latest Version

Feedback

Each pdf file contains a unique serial number associated with your particular name and contact information for security purposes. So if we find out that a particular pdf file is being distributed by you, CertBible reserves the right to take legal action against you according to the International Copyright Laws.
Question: 1
How can a tagged packet be processed for QoS when it is received on an inbound interface? (Select three.)

A. The marked priority level can be changed to enforce predetermined classification levels.
B. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on the marked 802.1p priority level.
C. The packet can be moved to a more secure VLAN and its priority remarked.
D. The packet can be scheduled for a queue based on a preset policy.
E. The packet can be discarded or rerouted if it does not match a set policy.
F. The packet can be prevented switch traversal for a predetermined penalty period.

Answer: A, B, D

Question: 2
What are Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager features? (Select three.)

A. is licensed per enclosure
B. is licensed with the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
C. is embedded on the Virtual Connect Ethernet module
D. can administer up to 256,000 network addresses
E. can manage a single domain of up to four enclosures
F. can administer up to 16,000 servers

Answer: A, D, F

Question: 3
Which is a unique feature of a virtual switch?

A. port mirroring for packet analysis
B. VLAN segmentation at the port level
C. no packet forwarding (routing) between VLANs
D. maximum of 1016 ports per switch

Answer: D

Question: 4
What is considered a Virtual Connect domain in Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager?

A. a maximum of 1,000 enclosures
B. a maximum of 16,000 servers
C. from 1 to 4 enclosures
D. 250 Virtual Connect Manager domains

Answer: C

Question: 5
Which industry-standard protocols are supported on Virtual Connect Ethernet uplinks? (Select three.)

A. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP)
B. IEEE 802.1w-2001 Rapid Spanning Tree (RSTP)
C. IEEE 802.1p Quality of Service (QoS)
D. IEEE 802.1 AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Protocol
E. IEEE 802.1Q VLAN tagging
F. IEEE 802.3af-2003 Power over Ethernet (PoE)

Answer: A, D, E

Question: 6
Which tasks are used to define a vNet for Virtual Connect Ethernet? (Select three.)

A. Assign only one network per server NIC.
B. Assign one or multiple networks per server NIC.
C. Optionally set the native VLAN.
D. Define the server profile.
E. Specify VLAN names/IDs.
F. Select unassigned uplinks.

Answer: A, D, F

Question: 7
Which spanning tree protocol is the most appropriate in a VLAN-aware, non-proprietary network implementation?

A. RSTP
B. PVST+
C. MSTP
D. STP

Answer: C

Question: 8
The IEEE 802.1AX (802.3ad) Link Aggregation Control Protocol is a Layer 2 protocol. What is its function?

A. dynamically identifies link speeds regardless of media type
B. forms port trunks consisting of two or more uplink ports
C. identifies the VLAN to which frames transmitted on a link or port trunk belong
D. advertises information that describes and identifies devices

Answer: B

Question: 9
What is used to achieve Fibre Channel data transfer?

A. channel mesh
B. packets
C. tunnels
D. frames

Answer: D

Question: 10
What does N_Port ID virtualization do?

A. provides an abstraction layer between the server HBAs and the SAN
B. provides interoperability among third-party SAN device manufacturers
C. provides connectivity between the Virtual Connect module and the Onboard Administrator
D. enables a single HBA port to register multiple, unique WWNs within a fabric

Answer: D

Question: 11
What is considered a trunk in a Cisco switching environment?

A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Answer: B

Question: 12
In a switching environment with redundant links, which technology is required for proper operation?

A. VLANs
B. Cisco vPC
C. loop prevention
D. dynamic routing

Answer: C

Question: 13
What are valid FlexNIC bandwidth selections? (Select three.)

A. Preferred
B. Assigned
C. Static
D. Custom
E. Dynamic
F. Auto

Answer: A, D, F

Question: 14
You are configuring Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet modules with Flex-10 server adapters. What is an important network design consideration?

A. The Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module does not enforce VLAN isolation between FlexNICs of the same server LAN on Motherboard (LOM).
B. If the Flex-10 server adapters are implemented as mezzanine cards, the Virtual Connect Flex-10 10Gb Ethernet module requires all FlexNICs be configured for the same speed.
C. The Virtual Connect Manager will enforce physical port isolation by not allowing FlexNICs of the same server port to connect to the same Virtual Connect network.
D. LACP trunking is not allowed between Virtual Connect uplink ports and infrastructure switch ports located on different modules, even if within the same physical switch.

Answer: C

Question: 15
On a Cisco switch, what does the portfast setting do?

A. eliminates auto-negotiation delays with 10GbE ports
B. ensures the link is at maximum speed regardless of configuration
C. causes BPDUs to be blocked if sensed
D. eliminates delays inherent in RSTP/MSTP synchronization

Answer: D

Question: 16
What does trunk refer to in industry-standard terminology?

A. aggregated switch links
B. tagged VLAN port (802.1Q)
C. tagged VLAN port plus link aggregation
D. Shared Uplink Set plus Connection Mode Auto

Answer: A

Question: 17
Which statements are true about port VLAN memberships? (Select three.)

A. A port can be an untagged member of multiple VLANs.
B. A port must be a member of at least one VLAN.
C. A port must be a tagged member of only one VLAN.
D. A port can be an untagged member of only one VLAN.
E. A port can be a tagged member of multiple VLANs.
F. A port can be a tagged member of one VLAN and an untagged member of multiple VLANs.

Answer: B, D, E

Question: 18
What are the requirements for link aggregation using LACP? (Select three.)

A. Links must have the same tagged VLANs assigned.
B. Links must be the same speed.
C. Links must use the same media type.
D. Links must share a boundary.
E. Links must be full-duplex.
F. Links must be fiber connections.

Answer: B, D, E

Question: 19
What are valid reasons for implementing VLANs? (Select two.)

A. to segregate traffic by resource or application needs
B. to provide enhanced name resolution
C. to reduce subnet cost options
D. to minimize the effect of broadcast traffic on hosts
E. to support multipathing

Answer: A, D

Question: 20
Which port is the lowest-cost path to the spanning tree root bridge?

A. root port
B. defined root port
C. designated port
D. forwarding port

Answer: A

Question: 21
Which action is required at the guest operating system level to enable it to run on a virtual machine?

A. A key code must be loaded into the registry and validated by VMware.
B. The VMware driver must be loaded for full network support.
C. No action is required because VMware is transparent to the operating system.
D. A VMware license must be loaded on each guest.

Answer: C

Question: 22
What can be used by a QoS policy to classify traffic? (Select two.)

A. packet size
B. egress port
C. TCP port number
D. TCP window size
E. VLAN ID
Purpose
The intent of this guide is to set expectations about the context of the exam and
to help candidates prepare for it. Recommended training to prepare for this
exam can be found at The Learning Center. It is important to note that
although training is recommended for exam preparation, successful completion
of the training alone does not guarantee that you will pass the exam. In
addition to training, exam items are based on knowledge gained from on-thejob experience and application as well as other supplemental reference
material that may be specified in this guide.
HP certification
The HP Certified Professional community is a network of qualified HP channel
partners, customers, and employees who have taken the courses and studied
the associated reference material necessary to pass the certification exams that
earn HP Certified Professional credentials. The exams offered through the HP
Certified Professional program validate the skills and assure the competency of
HP certified professionals. The knowledge and experience required to pass HP
certification exams ensure that HP certified professionals are respected and
valued throughout the industry.
Audience
This exam is for system engineers or technicians who require an in-depth
understanding of the technologies deployed in HP ProLiant and BladeSystem
servers. Examples of job roles include:
 HP Authorized Service Partner Systems Engineer
 HP Solution Architect
 HP Technical Client ConsultantHP0-S23 Design & Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3 Exam Preparation Guide
2
Minimum qualifications
To pass this exam, you should have at least two years experience with handson planning and the integration and support of technical solutions in
business/enterprise class, networked environments. Exams are based on an
assumed level of industry-standard knowledge that may be gained from the
training, hands-on experience, or other prerequisite events. You should also be
knowledgeable about enterprise-class solutions based on HP technologies.
Relevant certifications
After passing this exam, your achievement may be applied toward more than
one certification. To determine which certifications will be credited with this
achievement, log into The Learning Center and view the certifications listed on
the exam’s More Details tab. You may be on your way to achieving additional
HP certifications.
Exam details
The following are details about the exam:
 Number of items: 60
 Item types: multiple choice, drag-and-drop, point and click
 Exam Time: 90 minutes
 Passing Score: 72%
 Reference Material: No on-line or hard copy reference material will be
allowed at the testing site.
Comments on the exam
During the exam, participants can make specific comments about the items
(i.e., accuracy, appropriateness to audience, etc). HP welcomes these
comments as part of our continuous improvement process.HP Certified Professional
3
Exam content
The following testing objectives represent the specific areas of content covered
in the exam. Use this outline to guide your study and to check your readiness
for the exam. The exam measures your understanding of these areas.
HP0-S23 Sections/Objectives
8% Fundamental architecture and technologies
 Describe HP products and technologies
 Identify and describe fundamental architectures
5% Planning and design to achieve a deployable solution
 Use best practices for security.
5% Installation
 Install HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and options
14% Setup and configuration
 Configure HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) and options.
 Manage storage.
8% Version control and software deployment
 Perform version control and software deployment.
13% HP SIM management
 Monitor managed devices.
 Manage the CMS.
 Create reports.
2% BladeSystem Integrated Manager
 Describe features and functions of BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
5% Using tasks, collections, tools, and events
 Perform HP SIM management using tasks, collections, tools, and events.
32% Plug-ins and extensions
 Install and troubleshoot HP BladeSystem Integrated Manager.
 Install and troubleshoot Performance Management Pack (PMP).
 Install and troubleshoot Virtual Machine Management (VMM) Pack.
 Install and troubleshoot Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM).
 Install and troubleshoot Server Migration Pack.
 Install and troubleshoot Insight Power Manager.HP0-S23 Design & Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3 Exam Preparation Guide
4
 Install and troubleshoot Remote Support Pack.
8% Troubleshooting
 Perform troubleshooting.
Training
Recommended training to prepare for this exam is accessible from this exam’s
page in The Learning Center. See the exam attachment, Supporting courses, to
view and register for the courses.
You are not required to take the associated courses; however, HP strongly
recommends that you complete the training and thoroughly review all course
materials and documents before taking the exam. Sufficient on-the-job
experience may also be required.
Studies conducted by HP and Prometric show that a combination of course
attendance, self-study, and on-the-job experience maximizes the likelihood of
passing the exam on the first attempt.
Additional study references
This section lists courses and documents that can help you prepare for the
exam and acquire the knowledge necessary to achieve the associated
credential. You must also gain the practical experience outlined in this guide.
Please note: The following materials were available when this document was
published. Reference materials are continually updated and may not always be
a
Answer: C, E

Question: 23
Which advantages do ACLs offer? (Select two.)

A. fewer necessary support staff
B. increased network security
C. smaller broadcast domain
D. reduced network complexity
E. improved network performance

Answer: B, E

Question: 24
How many World Wide Names (WWNs) does Virtual Connect Manager make available?

A. 64 total available WWNs
B. 64 ranges for a total of 128 WWNs
C. 64 ranges for a total of 1024 WWNs
D. 128 ranges of 64 WWNS

Answer: C

Question: 25
Click the Exhibit button.Identify the port type shown in the blue outlined area.

A. fiber
B. SFP+
C. RJ-45
D. dedicated

Answer: B

Question: 26
A device with a non-compliant 802.1Q network adapter (NIC) is plugged into which type of switch port?

A. workstation
B. untagged
C. trunk
D. tagged

Answer: B

Question: 27
What best describes the functionality of the Virtual Connect Ethernet module?

A. Layer 2 switch
B. Layer 3 switch
C. pass-thru module
D. Ethernet port aggregator

Answer: D

Question: 28
Click the Exhibit button.What does the illustration reveal about the hardware configuration of the HP Integrity BL860c server blade? (Select two.)

A. The LOM is not a Flex-10 module.
B. The Flex-10 interface is in mezzanine Slot 2.
C. Ports 5 and 6 are preferred for connectivity.
D. Ports 7 through 12 are defective.
E. VLANs A and B are incorrectly configured.

Answer: A, B

Question: 29
What is the advantage of using Virtual Connect Flex-10 technology in a VMware environment?

A. It becomes tightly linked with VMware for better management through vCenter.
B. It eliminates the limit on NIC connections imposed by default on each VMware server.
C. It enables full VLAN support in VMware including multiple tagging functionality.
D. It allows bandwidth to be allocated as necessary to each VMware service or application.

Answer: D

passguide hp2=e37 pdf

Free Download PassGuide Crack Software — Sun, 29 May 2011 19:40:29 +0000

HP HP2-E37

Selling HP BladeSystems

Q&A V3.20

Study Tips

This product will provide you questions and answers carefully compiled and written by our experts. Try to understand the concepts behind the questions instead of cramming the questions.

Go through the entire document at least twice so that you make sure that you are not missing anything.

Latest Version

We are constantly reviewing our products. Nmaterial is added and old material is revised. Free updates are available for 120 days after the purchase. You should check your member zone at PassGuide an update 3-4 days before the scheduled exam date.

Feedback

Each pdf file contains a unique serial number associated with your particular name and contact information for security purposes. So if we find out that a particular pdf file is being distributed by you, CertBible reserves the right to take legal action against you according to the International Copyright Laws.
Question: 1
When the HP BladeSystem portfolio is described as a balanced architecture, what does that mean?

A. It is a portfolio that leverages industry standards to deliver next generation blade servers.
B. It is a portfolio that accommodates SMB and Enterprise customers across all industries.
C. It is a portfolio that meets the varied needs of customers by optimizing and balancing key elements beyond processor performance including memory expansion and network/storage I/O.
D. It is a portfolio that exceeds expectations and lifecycles as a result of best-in-class innovations.

Answer: D

Question: 2
Which innovative HP BladeSystem features deliver true energy manageability and savings? (Select three.)

A. Uni-directional Link Detection
B. HP Power Regulator
C. Dual Flash Images
D. Sea of Sensors
E. Dynamic Power Saver
F. HP Application Manager

Answer: B, D, E

Question: 3
What are the IT concerns of customers who fall within the SMB market space? (Select two.)

A. supporting their business
B. decentralizing their business
C. stabilizing their business
D. growing their business
E. capitalizing their business

Answer: A, D, E

Question: 4
HP has been recognized by Gartner as a leader within the Gartner Magic Quadrant for Blades (Jan 2011). What does that recognotion signify?

A. HP is a leader in price.
B. HP is a leader in market penetration.
C. HP is a leader in its completeness of vision and ability to execute.
D. HP is a leader in its vision for blades within the market.

Answer: C

Question: 5
Customers that have invested in HP Converged Infrastructure are able to transform their data centers and accomplish which objective?

A. introduce less demanding service level agreements
B. reduce the number of IT projects
C. drive business innovation and eliminate IT sprawl
D. develop a social media strategy for competitive advantage

Answer: C

Question: 6
Your customer wishes to migrate their business-critical applications away from outdated and proprietary architectures and benefit from standardized infrastructures. Which BladeSystem offering should you discuss?

A. Virtualization blades
B. Mission-critical blades
C. Scale-Out blades
D. Enterprise Data Center blades

Answer: B

Question: 7
What does the Integrity i2 Blade Link technology enable customers to do?

A. perform remote troubleshooting of multiple blades with integrated Lights Out (iLO) technology
B. consolidate data formats across the infrastructure
C. scale an existing blade through expansion kits to a 4-socket or 8-socket system with more I/O and memory
D. deploy embedded network capability with a Network Storage Gateway Blade

Answer: C

Question: 8
The HP BladeSystem portfolio is segmented into four categories: Scale-Out blades and Mission-Critical blades are two of the categories. What are the other categories? (Select two.)

A. Database blades
B. Virtualization blades
C. Print Server blades
D. Enterprise Data Center blades
E. Archival blades

Answer: B, D

Question: 9
The need for high performance computing has driven many customers to a scale-out approach. As a consequence, which feature has HP included as a priority when designing blades?

A. Virtualization
B. Small-site load balancing
C. Scale-out density
D. Traditional 4P to 6P flexibility

Answer: C

Question: 10
Which HP innovation allows customers to simplify server connections to LANs and SANs?

A. HP Network Essentials
B. HP SIM
C. HP Integrated Lights Out Advanced (iLO 3)
D. HP Virtual Connect

Answer: D

Question: 11
What are key differentiators for HP BladeSystem when compared to competitive offerings?

A. Virtual Connect technology, MTBF ratings, and low purchase price
B. Intel processors, Enclosure technology, and Virtual Connect technology
C. Virtual Connect technology, Balanced architecture, and Insight Control
D. Form factors, Thermal Logic technology, and Enclosure technology

Answer: C

Question: 12
The BL680c blade server is best suited for which blade server segments? (Select two.)

A. Mission-Critical
B. Enterprise Data Center
C. Virtualization
D. Scale-out

Answer: B, C

Question: 13
How does HP Insight Management solve the customer’s pain point of manual server deployment?

A. It streamlines online access from remote office locations.
B. It delivers automated, fast, and error-free server deployment.
C. It eliminates travel to remote servers and subsequent troubleshooting.
D. It resolves the decision between rack-based and blade-based

Answer: B

Question: 14
P.O.D. is an acronym for an exciting HP product that refers to which technology description?

A. Price Optimized Datacenter
B. Parallel Operational Datacenter
C. Performance Operational Datacenter
D. Performance Optimized Datacenter

Answer: D

Question: 15
Two HP BladeSystem servers have been extremely popular within the Enterprise data center. One of them is a half-height blade and considered the most popular blade in the industry. The other provides maximum performance and unparalleled scale-up expansion never seen before in a four-processor x86 server blade. . What are these two blade servers? (Select two.)

A. BL460c
B. BL620c
C. BL680c
D. BL870c
E. BL890c

Answer: A, C

Question: 16
Which HP Storage offering has the unique features to solve the rapidly growing problem of unstructured data?

A. P4000 G2 SAN Solution
B. P9500 Disk Array
C. X9000 Network Storage System
D. 3PAR Utility Storage

Answer: A

Question: 17
Which statement best describes the data center challenges being faced in the year 2011?

A. They typically align to two areas: sprawl and virtualization.
B. They can be eliminated with a single-vendor strategy.
C. They are now solely focused on management complexity.
D. They have, for the most part, been resolved by management tools.

Answer: A

Question: 18
What is one of the trends that is driving the need for intelligent networks?

A. the ever-increasing need for powerful machine-to-machine communications
B. the increased requirement for archival and compliance
C. the lack of capable network administrators
D. the impact that server virtualization has had on data centers

Answer: D

Question: 19
How can your customer benefit by transforming their datacenter with BladeSystem Matrix? (Select two.)

A. It can streamline merger and acquisition negotiations.
B. It can reduce TCO by up to 56%.
C. It can increase the number of staff dedicated to specific IT silos.
D. It can eliminate the growing problem of unstructured data growth.
E. It can provision complex infrastructure and applications in minutes rather than weeks

Answer: B, E

Question: 20
What HP service is appropriate for a customer who is interested in the ability to dial-up capacity when needed and minimize procurement cycles?

A. Cloud Consulting service
B. Utility Ready Blades service
C. Converged Infrastructure service
D. HP Proactive service

Answer: B

Question: 21
What is the unique aspect of the HP StoreOnce deduplication product?

A. It delivers up to 10% better price/performance.
B. It is licensed for both source and target sites.
C. It deduplicates data only once.
D. It covers all customer requirements except compliance

Answer: C

Question: 22
What is a key characteristic that has driven the success of the Enterprise Virtual Array?

A. the introduction of smart tiers
B. tight integration with Data Protector and Zero downtime backup
C. the inclusion of a 16PB global namespace
D. the use of thin provisioning

Answer: B

Question: 23
What are the key capabilities of Insight Control? (Select two.)

A. It can control the data center environment from a single location.
B. It allows integration with VMware vCenter and Microsoft Systems Center.
C. It separates the management of virtual and physical servers.
D. It enables server deployment 12 times faster than manual processes.
E. It eliminates the need for virtualization management.

Answer: A, D

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Updated: 2011-08-09

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Exam Number/Code: SY0-301

Exam Name: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version

Vendor:comptia

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ST0-136

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Exam Number/Code: ST0-136

Exam Name: Symantec System Recovery 2011 Technical Assessment

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SPS-200

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Exam Number/Code: SPS-200

Exam Name: IBMSPSSMPRO: IBM SPSS Modeler Professional

Vendor:IBM

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Updated: 2011-08-09

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Exam Number/Code: SPS-100

Exam Name: IBM SPSS Statistics Level 1

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Exam Number/Code: LOT-917

Exam Name: Administering IBM Connections 3.0

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Updated: 2011-08-09

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Exam Name: Juniper Networks Certified Internet Professional, Security (JNCIP-SEC)

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